Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 06:45
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Atheists who have read the Bible and think that contains immoral things, why do you assume that?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What are the challenges associated with the birth narratives of Jesus?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.